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Conditions for Convergence in Measure to Imply Convergence in L1

What conditions for convergence in measure to imply convergence in l1 ensure that \(X_n \to X\) in measure implies \(\mathbb{E}|X_n-X|\to 0\), and why is an extra condition necessary?

Subject: Statistics Chapter: Probability Topic: Marginal and Conditional Probabilities Answer included
conditions for convergence in measure to imply convergence in l1 convergence in measure convergence in probability L1 convergence uniform integrability Vitali convergence theorem dominated convergence de la Vallée-Poussin criterion
Accepted answer Answer included

Definitions (probability setting)

Interpreting “convergence in measure” on a probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\mathbb{P})\), convergence in measure is the same as convergence in probability.

  • Convergence in measure (in probability): \(X_n \to X\) in measure if for every \(\varepsilon>0\), \[ \mathbb{P}(|X_n-X|>\varepsilon)\to 0. \]
  • \(L^1\) convergence: \(X_n \to X\) in \(L^1\) if \[ \mathbb{E}\,|X_n-X|\to 0. \]

Baseline implication (easy direction)

\(L^1\) convergence always implies convergence in measure. For any \(\varepsilon>0\), Markov’s inequality gives \[ \mathbb{P}(|X_n-X|>\varepsilon)\le \frac{\mathbb{E}|X_n-X|}{\varepsilon}\to 0. \]

Why the reverse fails without extra conditions

Convergence in measure does not control rare but very large deviations. A standard counterexample on \((0,1)\) with Lebesgue probability: \[ X_n(\omega)=n\,\mathbf{1}_{(0,\,1/n)}(\omega), \qquad X(\omega)=0. \]

  • For any \(\varepsilon>0\), \(\mathbb{P}(|X_n-0|>\varepsilon)=\mathbb{P}\big((0,1/n)\big)=1/n\to 0\), so \(X_n\to 0\) in measure.
  • But \(\mathbb{E}|X_n-0|=\int_0^1 n\,\mathbf{1}_{(0,1/n)}\,d\omega = 1\) for all \(n\), so \(X_n\) does not converge to \(0\) in \(L^1\).

The failure comes from “mass moving to the tails”: the event is small (\(1/n\)) but the magnitude is large (\(n\)), keeping the mean absolute deviation at \(1\).

Conditions for convergence in measure to imply convergence in L1

Condition A: Uniform integrability (Vitali-type condition)

A family \(\{X_n\}\) is uniformly integrable if \[ \lim_{M\to\infty}\ \sup_n \mathbb{E}\Big(|X_n|\mathbf{1}_{\{|X_n|>M\}}\Big)=0. \]

Vitali convergence theorem (probability form): If \(X_n \to X\) in measure and \(\{X_n\}\) is uniformly integrable, then \(X \in L^1\) and \[ \mathbb{E}|X_n-X|\to 0. \]

Condition B: Domination by an \(L^1\) function (a practical sufficient condition)

Suppose there exists an integrable random variable \(Y\) such that \[ |X_n-X|\le Y \quad \text{a.s. for all } n,\qquad \mathbb{E}|Y|<\infty, \] and \(X_n\to X\) in measure. Then \[ \mathbb{E}|X_n-X|\to 0. \]

This is a “dominated convergence in measure” principle: domination prevents the tail-mass pathology seen in the counterexample.

Condition C: An \(L^p\) bound for some \(p>1\) (de la Vallée-Poussin criterion)

If there exists \(p>1\) and a constant \(C\) such that \[ \sup_n \mathbb{E}|X_n|^p \le C, \] then \(\{X_n\}\) is uniformly integrable. Consequently, if also \(X_n \to X\) in measure, then \[ \mathbb{E}|X_n-X|\to 0. \]

Proof sketch for Condition A (uniform integrability + convergence in measure)

Set \(D_n = X_n - X\). The goal is \(\mathbb{E}|D_n|\to 0\).

Step 1: Truncate to control tails

For \(M>0\), write \[ |D_n| = |D_n|\mathbf{1}_{\{|X_n|\le M,\ |X|\le M\}} + |D_n|\mathbf{1}_{\{|X_n|>M\}} + |D_n|\mathbf{1}_{\{|X|>M\}}. \]

Using \(|D_n|\le |X_n|+|X|\), the tail terms satisfy \[ \mathbb{E}\big(|D_n|\mathbf{1}_{\{|X_n|>M\}}\big)\le \mathbb{E}\big(|X_n|\mathbf{1}_{\{|X_n|>M\}}\big) + \mathbb{E}\big(|X|\mathbf{1}_{\{|X_n|>M\}}\big), \] and similarly for \(\mathbf{1}_{\{|X|>M\}}\). Uniform integrability of \(\{X_n\}\) allows choosing \(M\) so that the \(\sup_n \mathbb{E}(|X_n|\mathbf{1}_{\{|X_n|>M\}})\) term is as small as desired; integrability of \(X\) makes \(\mathbb{E}(|X|\mathbf{1}_{\{|X|>M\}})\) small for large \(M\).

Step 2: Convergence of the bounded (truncated) part

On the event \(\{|X_n|\le M,|X|\le M\}\), the difference is bounded: \[ 0 \le |D_n|\mathbf{1}_{\{|X_n|\le M,|X|\le M\}} \le 2M. \]

Convergence in measure implies \(D_n \to 0\) in measure, hence the bounded variable \(|D_n|\mathbf{1}_{\{|X_n|\le M,|X|\le M\}}\) converges to \(0\) in measure. For bounded nonnegative \(Z_n \le 2M\) with \(Z_n\to 0\) in measure, \[ \mathbb{E}Z_n = \int_0^{2M} \mathbb{P}(Z_n>t)\,dt \to 0 \] by dominated convergence on the integral in \(t\), since \(\mathbb{P}(Z_n>t)\to 0\) for each \(t>0\) and is bounded by \(1\).

Step 3: Combine bounded part + tails

With \(M\) chosen so tails are small and \(n\) large so the bounded part has small expectation, conclude \(\mathbb{E}|D_n|\to 0\), i.e. \(X_n \to X\) in \(L^1\).

Quick checklist (what a correct answer should state)

Goal Given Extra condition (sufficient) Conclusion
\(X_n \to X\) in \(L^1\) \(X_n \to X\) in measure Uniform integrability of \(\{X_n\}\) \(\mathbb{E}|X_n-X|\to 0\)
\(X_n \to X\) in \(L^1\) \(X_n \to X\) in measure \(|X_n-X|\le Y\) a.s. with \(\mathbb{E}|Y|<\infty\) \(\mathbb{E}|X_n-X|\to 0\)
\(X_n \to X\) in \(L^1\) \(X_n \to X\) in measure \(\sup_n \mathbb{E}|X_n|^p<\infty\) for some \(p>1\) \(\mathbb{E}|X_n-X|\to 0\)

Visualization: relationships among common modes of convergence

Convergence relationships diagram A diagram showing that L1 implies convergence in measure, and that convergence in measure implies L1 when uniform integrability holds. L1 convergence In measure Extra condition Uniform integrability L1 convergence (upgrade result) always with UI Convergence in measure alone does not control tails; UI (or domination) does.
Convergence in \(L^1\) always implies convergence in measure, but the reverse implication requires tail control such as uniform integrability, domination, or an \(L^p\) bound with \(p>1\).
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